Practice Tests For IT & Nursing
Question # 6

A patient on highly emetogenic cisplatin received optimal four-drug prophylaxis (5-HT3 RA, NK1 RA, dexamethasone, olanzapine 5 mg) but returns on Day 3 with refractory nausea and vomiting. He is hydrated and not obstructed. What is the BEST next step for breakthrough CINV?

Options:

A.

Repeat a 5-HT3 antagonist dose only

B.

Escalate olanzapine to 10 mg daily for 2–3 days and add a dopamine antagonist PRN

C.

Start scopolamine patch as monotherapy

D.

Switch to promethazine alone

Question # 7

Your clinic starts many oral targeted therapies (TKIs) with significant drug–drug interaction (DDI) risks (e.g., PPIs, CYP3A inhibitors). Which systems-level action BEST improves safety?

Options:

A.

Rely on prescriber memory; address DDIs if patients report issues

B.

Establish a pharmacist-APRN collaborative protocol with mandatory medication reconciliation, EHR DDI alerts tailored to oncology, standardized patient education, and a rapid consult pathway for complex interactions

C.

Turn off EHR alerts to reduce “alarm fatigue”

D.

Provide a one-time handout listing common DDIs

Question # 8

Five weeks into PD-1 therapy, a patient develops 8–10 watery stools/day with abdominal cramping; stool studies are negative, and CT shows colitis. What is the MOST appropriate management?

Options:

A.

Start loperamide only and continue immunotherapy

B.

Hold immunotherapy; begin high-dose corticosteroids (e.g., prednisone 1–2 mg/kg/day or IV methylprednisolone), GI consult, and escalate to infliximab or vedolizumab if steroid-refractory

C.

Admit and start broad-spectrum antibiotics only

D.

Restart immunotherapy after 24 hours regardless of response

Question # 9

A 58-year-old with diffuse large B-cell lymphoma has Ca 13.6 mg/dL, PTH suppressed, calcitriol elevated, normal albumin. He is confused and dehydrated. What is the MOST appropriate initial therapy?

Options:

A.

IV bisphosphonate only

B.

IV fluids plus glucocorticoids (e.g., prednisone), add calcitonin for rapid effect, and consider antiresorptive therapy

C.

Calcitonin alone; steroids are ineffective

D.

Dialysis as first-line

Question # 10

A 32-year-old woman with a known pathogenic MLH1 mutation (Lynch syndrome) asks about colorectal cancer surveillance. She is asymptomatic. What is the MOST appropriate plan?

Options:

A.

Begin colonoscopy at age 50 and repeat every 10 years

B.

Colonoscopy now and then every 1–2 years thereafter

C.

Annual FIT stool testing only

D.

CT colonography every 5 years

Viewing question 2 out of 15 questions


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Name Advanced Oncology Certified Nurse Practitioner
Code AOCNP
Vendor Nursing
Certification Oncology Nursing Certification Corporation (ONCC)

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