Practice Tests For IT & Nursing
Question # 46

A patient with CLL and high tumor burden is starting venetoclax. What is the SAFEST initiation strategy to prevent tumor lysis syndrome (TLS)?

Options:

A.

Start full target dose on Day 1 with outpatient labs in a week

B.

Step-wise dose ramp-up with aggressive hydration, uric acid control (allopurinol ± rasburicase per risk), and inpatient monitoring with labs at 6–8 h and 24 h for high-risk starts

C.

No prophylaxis needed because TLS risk is low with oral agents

D.

Begin diuretics alone

Question # 47

A 28-year-old woman received chest radiation for Hodgkin lymphoma at age 16. She is asymptomatic. What is the BEST breast cancer screening plan?

Options:

A.

Begin mammography at 40

B.

Annual breast MRI starting now and add annual mammography at 30; alternate every 6 months when feasible

C.

No screening needed before symptoms

D.

Ultrasound only annually

Question # 48

A 68-year-old with comorbid COPD and diabetes will receive docetaxel/cyclophosphamide (TC) for early breast cancer. The regimen’s expected FN risk is borderline-moderate; her personal risk is elevated. What is the BEST approach to prevent neutropenic complications?

Options:

A.

No growth factor unless she develops febrile neutropenia

B.

Primary prophylaxis with pegfilgrastim (or daily filgrastim) beginning 24 hours after chemotherapy, plus education and early triage plan

C.

Reduce chemotherapy doses by 25% for cycle 1

D.

Add prophylactic oral antibiotics in place of G-CSF

Question # 49

A 45-year-old with newly diagnosed triple-negative breast cancer (Stage II) and no known family history asks about genetic testing. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

Options:

A.

No germline testing because family history is negative

B.

Test only if she has ovarian cancer as well

C.

Refer for genetic counseling and germline multigene panel testing now

D.

Order tumor-only next-generation sequencing instead of germline testing

Question # 50

A 63-year-old day 9 post-chemotherapy presents with T 39.3°C, MAP 58 mmHg, ANC 100/µL, and chills. What is the MOST appropriate immediate management?

Options:

A.

Obtain CT scans before antibiotics to localize the source

B.

Start IV vancomycin only; reassess in 6 hours

C.

Begin broad-spectrum IV antipseudomonal therapy within 60 minutes (e.g., cefepime, piperacillin-tazobactam, or meropenem ± MRSA coverage per risk), draw cultures/lactate, give 30 mL/kg isotonic fluids, and escalate for source control

D.

Wait for culture results before treating

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Name Advanced Oncology Certified Nurse Practitioner
Code AOCNP
Vendor Nursing
Certification Oncology Nursing Certification Corporation (ONCC)

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