Free SCRN Exam Questions That Helps Candidates Pass

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

The correct answer is B because Wallenberg syndrome, or lateral medullary syndrome, is classically caused by occlusion of the posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA) or the vertebral artery from which it branches. The lateral medulla contains critical cranial nerve nuclei and ascending/descending pathways, leading to a characteristic constellation of clinical findings: vertigo and nystagmus (vestibular nuclei), ipsilateral facial pain and temperature loss (spinal trigeminal nucleus), contralateral body pain and temperature loss (spinothalamic tract), dysphagia and hoarseness (nucleus ambiguus), ipsilateral Horner syndrome (descending sympathetic fibers), and ipsilateral limb ataxia (restiform body/cerebellum). Option A is incorrect because the anterior cerebral artery supplies the frontal lobes and medial motor/sensory strips. Option C is incorrect because the middle cerebral artery supplies the lateral cerebral hemispheres, causing aphasia, hemiparesis, or neglect. Option D is incorrect because the anterior choroidal artery supplies the posterior limb of the internal capsule and optic tract. Recognizing brainstem syndromes is vital for SCRN nurses to accurately correlate clinical manifestations with specific posterior circulation vascular anatomy and anticipate unique respiratory and swallowing complications.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

The correct answer is B because pseudobulbar affect (PBA) is a neurological condition caused by brain lesions that disrupt cortico-limbic-subcortical circuits, resulting in involuntary, sudden, and exaggerated episodes of crying or laughing that are uncoupled from actual emotional feelings. It is effectively treated with specific pharmacological agents, such as dextromethorphan-quinidine or SSRIs like sertraline. Option A is incorrect because PBA differs from classic unipolar depression, which involves persistent sadness rather than brief, involuntary outbursts. Option C is incorrect because manic episodes involve grandiosity and sustained behavioral shifts. Option D is incorrect because PBA is an organic neurological manifestation, not a conversion disorder. SCRN nurses educate patients and families about PBA to reduce social embarrassment and encourage appropriate medical treatment.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

The correct answer is B because for selected patients with high-grade (70% to 99%) asymptomatic carotid stenosis, carotid endarterectomy (CEA) or carotid artery stenting (CAS)—when performed by an experienced operator with low perioperative complication rates—is indicated to reduce long-term stroke risk, provided the patient has a reasonable life expectancy. This is combined with aggressive medical management (antiplatelet therapy, statins, and blood pressure control). Option A is incorrect because emergent intervention within 24 hours is reserved for symptomatic carotid stenosis, whereas asymptomatic lesions allow for planned, elective evaluation. Option C is incorrect because watchful waiting alone for a 75% stenosis misses an opportunity for stroke prevention in suitable candidates. Option D is incorrect because radical neck dissection is an oncological procedure, not a vascular strokeprevention intervention. SCRN nurses educate patients on procedural risks and benefits while coordinating multidisciplinary surgical evaluations.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

The correct answer is A because the patient is presenting well within the standard 4.5-hour therapeutic window for intravenous alteplase, has no evidence of intracranial hemorrhage on CT, and has blood pressure readings well below the exclusion threshold of 185/110 mmHg. Given the focal neurologicaldeficits suggesting a large vessel occlusion (hemiparesis and neglect), immediate administration of intravenous thrombolysis combined with concurrent evaluation for mechanical endovascular thrombectomy represents the gold standard of hyperacute care. Option B is incorrect because a "wait and watch" approach wastes critical penumbral tissue and violates the principle that "time is brain." Option C is incorrect because aggressively lowering blood pressure below normal parameters before reperfusion can precipitate hypoperfusion and enlarge the ischemic core. Option D is incorrect because waiting for advanced perfusion imaging when non-contrast CT is already negative and the patient is within the window creates dangerous treatment delays. SCRN nurses facilitate rapid-response workflows to optimize door-to-needle metrics.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

The correct answer is A because stroke survivors face a substantially elevated risk of falls due to motor deficits, sensory loss, visual field cuts, and cognitive impairment. Fall prevention in post-acute care requires comprehensive home modifications, including eliminating tripping hazards like throw rugs, ensuring adequate illumination in pathways and stairwells, and installing sturdy grab bars in high-risk areas like showers and near toilets. Option B is incorrect because walking barefoot or in socks increases slip hazards; supportive, non-skid footwear should be worn at all times. Option C is incorrect because dark pathways increase disorientation and fall risk during nighttime bathroom trips. Option D is incorrect because encouraging unassisted stair climbing without recommended assistive devices (such as a quad cane or walker) and physical therapy supervision directly exposes the patient to severe fall and fracture risks. Nurses play an essential coaching role in empowering patients and families to adapt their home environments for safe, independent living.